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Q201
Which two of these Metro Internet services map to E-LAN services that are defined by the MEF?
(Choose two.)
A. Ethernet Private Line
B. Ethernet Wire Service
C. Ethernet Relay Service
D. Ethernet Multipoint Service
E. Ethernet Relay Multipoint Service
Answer: D,E
Explanation: Q202 Which two of these are characteristics of Metro Ethernet? (Choose two.) ActualTests.com
A. class of service
B. bandwidth profiles
C. user-network interface
D. Ethernet LAN circuit attributes
E. Ethernet virtual circuit attributes
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Q203
Which three of these are important when determining NAS Server scaling? (Choose three.)
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A. interface bandwidth
B. rescan timer interval
C. total number of network devices
D. number of new user authentications per second
E. which operating system is loaded on the client
F. number of checks performed in a posture assessment
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
Q204
Which of these is true of a Layer 3 out-of-band NAS deployment?
A. The NAS acts as a gateway for all Layer 3 traffic.
B. Only the MAC address is used to identify the client device.
C. User traffic remains on the same VLAN for the duration of the connection.
D. After authentication and posture assessment, client traffic no longer passes through the NAS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q205
Your MPLS implementation is currently using internal backdoor links. What can you do to minimize the
impact of having these links?
A. use BGP as the CE-PE routing protocol ActualTests.com
B. use OSPF as the CE-PE routing protocol
C. use EIGRP as the CE-PE routing protocol
D. use the SP to redistribute routes as external routes for OSPF and EIGRP
E. use route redistribution at each location to ensure external routes are imported into the IGP
Answer: A
Explanation: Q206 One of your customers wishes to use the NAS to perform DHCP functions and does not currently have a Layer 3 gateway in its production network. Which gateway mode is appropriate for this
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 80 customer?
A. Virtual Gateway
B. Real-IP Gateway
C. NAT Gateway
D. IP-IP Gateway
Answer: B
Explanation: Q207 Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual (counter-rotating) ring topology?
A. DTP
B. RPR
C. SDH
D. CWDM
E. DWDM
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q208
Which of these is a benefit of ESM?
A. supports multiple MIBs ActualTests.com
B. includes NetFlow, NBAR, and IP SLA software subsystems
C. includes NetFlow, syslog, and IP SLA software subsystems
D. includes a predefined framework for filtering and correlating messages
E. supports two logging processes so output can be sent in standard and ESM format
Answer: E
Explanation:
Q209
Which of these ports does syslog use to send messages to a syslog server?
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A. TCP 502
B. TCP 514
C. TCP 520
D. UDP 502
E. UDP 514
F. UDP 520
Answer: E
Explanation:
Q210
To which of these does IP multicast send packets?
A. a single host
B. a subset of hosts
C. all hosts sequentially
D. all hosts simultaneously
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q211
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct regarding the creation of a multicast distribution
tree? (Choose two.)
ActualTests.com
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ActualTests.com
A. Each router determines where to send the JOIN request.
B. The tree will be built based on the IP address of the E2 interface on router E.
C. The best path to the source will be discovered in the unicast routing table on router B.
D. The best path to the source will be discovered in the unicast routing table on router C.
E. The best path to the source will be discovered in the unicast routing table on router E.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Q212
What is the default value of the SPT threshold in Cisco routers?
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A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 16
F. infinity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q213
Which two of these multicast deployments are most susceptible to attacks from unknown sources?
(Choose two.)
A. ASM
B. BiDir PIM
C. PIM-SM RP
D. RP-Switchover
E. Source Specific Multicast
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Q214
Which of the following is a characteristic of a data center core?
ActualTests.com
A. Server-to-server traffic always remains in the core layer.
B. The recommended practice is for the core infrastructure to be in Layer 3.
C. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 should be implemented in the aggregation layer.
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding hashing algorithm is the default, based on the IP address and Layer 4 port.
E. Core layer should run BGP along with an IGP because iBGP has a lower administrative distance than any IGP.
Answer: B
Explanation: Q215 Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when OSPF is the data center core
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 84 routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Never use passive interfaces.
B. Use NSSA areas from the core down.
C. Use totally stub areas to stop type 3 LSAs.
D. Use the lowest Ethernet interface IP address as the router ID.
E. Tune OSPF timers to enable OSPF to achieve quicker convergence
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Q216
Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when EIGRP is the data center core routing
protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Summarize data center subnets.
B. Use passive interfaces to ensure appropriate adjacencies.
C. Tune the EIGRP timers to enable EIGRP to achieve quicker convergence.
D. Adjust the default bandwidth value to ensure proper bandwidth on all links.
E. Advertise a default summary route into the data center core from the aggregation layer.
Answer: A,E
Explanation: Q217 Which two statements correctly describe a situation in which an Active/Standby Service Module design is being used? (Choose two.) ActualTests.com
A. Troubleshooting is more complicated.
B. Service and switch modules are underutilized.
C. Layer 2 adjacency is required with the servers that use this design.
D. Layer 3 adjacency is required with the servers that use this design.
E. Load balancing will always occur across both access layer uplinks.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Q218
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Which statement correctly describes a situation in which VRFs are used in the data center?
A. Partitioning of network resources is enabled.
B. VRFs cannot support path isolation from MAN/WAN designs.
C. VRFs cannot be used to map a virtualized data center to a MPLS implementation.
D. VRFs do not allow for the use of application services with multiple access topologies.
E. An access design using a VRF allows for an aggregation layer service module solution.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q219
Which statement about data center access layer design modes is correct?
A. The access layer is the first oversubscription point in a data center design.
B. When using a Layer 2 loop-free design, VLANs are extended into the aggregation layer.
C. When using a Layer 2 looped design, VLANs are not extended into the aggregation layer.
D. When using a Layer 3 design, stateful services requiring Layer 2 connectivity are provisioned from the aggregation layer.
E. The data center access layer provides the physical-level connections to the server resources and only operates at Layer 3.
Answer: A
Explanation: Q220 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct regarding the topology shown? ActualTests.com
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A. It achieves quick convergence with 802.1w/s.
B. It is currently the most widely deployed in enterprise data centers.
C. It is a looped square that achieves resiliency with dual homing and STP.
D. It is a looped triangle that achieves resiliency with dual homing and STP.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q221
Which two statements about Network Attached Storage are correct? (Choose two.)
ActualTests.com
A. Data is accessed using NFS or CIFS.
B. Data is accessed at the block level.
C. NAS is referred to as captive storage.
D. Storage devices can be shared between users.
E. A NAS implementation is not as fast as a DAS implementation.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q222
Which two of these correctly describe Fibre Channel? (Choose two.)
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A. supports multiple protocols
B. works only in a shared or loop environment
C. allows addressing for up to 4 million nodes
D. allows addressing for up to 8 million nodes
E. provides a high speed transport for SCSI payloads
F. may stretch to a distance of up to 100 km before needing extenders
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Q223
Which statement about Fibre Channel communications is correct?
A. It operates much like TCP.
B. Flow control is only provided by QoS.
C. It must be implemented in an arbitrated loop.
D. Communication methods are similar to those of an Ethernet bus.
E. N_Port to N_Port connections use logical node connection points.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Q224
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the
same fabric?
A. ISL ActualTests.com
B. IVR
C. VoQ
D. VSANs
E. Enhanced ISL
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q225
Which path selection protocol is used by Fibre Channel fabrics?
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A. IVR
B. VoQ
C. FSPF
D. VSANs
E. SANTap
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q226
In a collapsed core design, which two benefits are provided by a second-generation Cisco MDS director?
(Choose two.)
A. a higher fan-out ratio
B. fully redundant switches
C. 100 percent port efficiency
D. all ISLs contained within a single chassis
E. higher latency and throughput than a core-edge design switch
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Q227
Which two statements about FCIP and iSCSI are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The FCIP stack supports file-level storage for remote devices.
B. Both require high throughput with low latency and low jitter. ActualTests.com
C. The purpose of FCIP is to provide connectivity between host and storage.
D. The iSCSI stack supports block-level storage for remote devices.
E. The purpose of iSCSI is to provide connectivity between separate wide-area SANs.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
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